06-10-2004, 06:34 | #11 |
Emperor
Join Date: Mar 2003
Location: N/A
Posts: 4,490
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I only see this thread now. In my game vs Jack Merchant (PTW) the results were totally different. Both humnans got into the vote, as did a tiny nation (France in this case). If it were a SP game both Jack and France shouldn't have been in, but me (UN builder) and Persia...
There's probably more going on around this MP UN vote (it's obviously flawed), but I'm not going to bother finding out what. Just wanted to point out that Beam's preliminary findings don't fit my experience... |
06-10-2004, 16:27 | #12 |
Administrator
Join Date: Mar 2003
Location: Tampere, Finland
Posts: 4,828
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Here's a scenario that might help figure some things out.
Download Attachment: [img]icon_paperclip.gif[/img] UN test.biq 5.59*KB In order to be elegible you must either have 25% territory, 25% population or have built the UN. In this scenario there are three cases of the first (Germany, France, England), three of the second (Rome, Egypt, Greece) and the Dutch have built the UN. I did two tests already: all civs as human hotseat player, and single player game as Dutch. In both cases France and Germany was elegible. Still ever seen a list like this for UN elections before?
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06-10-2004, 16:56 | #13 |
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Join Date: Mar 2003
Location: Tampere, Finland
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Did another test: no one 25% of anything except the English who also have the UN. In such a case the second biggest is also elegible.
In the case where I played SP as English, the second in place that was Egypt. Then I played hotseat as English and Rome. Now the elegible ones were English, Rome and Egypt. This was in an attempt to reproduce the Beam vs krys situation. Actually a 'second in place' shouldn't be necessary with multiplayer, where every human is elegible anyway... Oh, by the way, Rome was elegible, but as Rome I wasn't able to vote myself!! Apparently the computer chose Rome for me. It was "Do you want elections?", vote, and results all subsequent.
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